Hi,
Was that discussed somewhere that how quantum computers work according to GUTCP? Specifically can qbits exist in GUTCP?
Thanks
Lajos
Hi,
Was that discussed somewhere that how quantum computers work according to GUTCP? Specifically can qbits exist in GUTCP?
Thanks
Lajos
I asked a question here related to the duble slit experiment, wating for the answer:
https://groups.yahoo.com/neo/g…versations/messages/13171
My question was:
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Hi Randy,
If the medium is not an EM wave then what is it?
The question is the same for the pilot wave. If it is not a physical thing then it doesn't fit in GUTCP. If it is a physical thing (some kind of field?) then where does it get its energy from? One electron's pilot wave is said to take input from the whole universe i.e. it the wave must occupy a huge volune. How much energy is needed to generate a wave of this size?
One electron's pilot wave is said to take input from the whole universe
Aaaah...but which universe?
Aabout pilot wave, I'm told it is incompatible with the experiment around Bell inequality which rule out hidden variable "excuses" in quantum physics.
By the way, on BBC a documentary explains that problem very well, even for kids.
The Randel Mills theory essentially contradicts the Pilot wave theory (and quantum mechanics as a whole, after all). He doesn't interpret the orbitals like the fancy wave interference patterns of Pilot waves (or wave functions) of electrons - but like hollow less or more spherical shells.
R.Mills theory says that the freely traveling electron is a disk, the bound electron in an atom is a hollow shell. In the double slit experiment he says there is a free electron (disk) and the walls of the slit (protons and bound electrons - holloow shells) and there is an electromagnetic wave which has en effect on the free electron which causes the wavelike distribution on the target screen. Where does the EM wave come from? I suppose it is not from the electrons as they have a "closed" shape. Is it from the protons?
Aabout pilot wave, I'm told it is incompatible with the experiment around Bell inequality which rule out hidden variable "excuses" in quantum physics.
I think it's more subtle than this. According to Wikipedia, Bell had discovered Bohm's work (and presumably liked it), and he wondered whether the explicit non-locality of the de Broglie–Bohm theory could be removed. That inspired Bell's famous inequality. The experiments looking into Bell's inequality are believed to rule out "local hidden variables." That was not the answer Bell was hoping for, as I understand the story. But since the de Broglie–Bohm theory was already non-local, the experimental support for Bell's inequality did not rule out the theory. I believe the current understanding in physics is that the math for both traditional quantum mechanics and the pilot wave theory produce the same predictions in most cases and diverge in only a few corner cases for which there are currently no experiments to decide between the two approaches, making them indistinguishable in practice.
Take this description with a big grain of salt. Perhaps someone else can better elucidate this matter.