Can you explain more? let's look at the numbers
2006: 1/alpha = 137.035 999 710 (96) from the measured g factor and the QED deduction
2010: 1/alpha = 137.035 999 037(91) almost direct measurement
2014: 1/alpha = 137.035 999 139(31).
Mills is using in his book
1/alpha = 137.03604 -> g/2 = 1.001159652(12)
using the 2014 value in the same formula gives g/2 = 1.001159652(46)
The experimental value today of the g factor is g/2 = 1.00115965218091
This doesn't show that the prediction 2006 was right about the measurement 2010. Did you mean that we had another theoretical correction of it 2007 and that one matches the 2010 result, do you have a reference? Or do you mean that e.g. Mills value of alpha
was used 2006.
Also Mills deduces mass ratios where only alpha is used in the formulas, so if the mass ratios include only alpha then the formula for the g factor may still contain only alphas. But Mills is not using any lepton mass ratio corrections in his derivation and the value you get in QM is more exact (some years ago, but not much more at that time). I want to have a proof like what you are suggesting - e.g. that 2006 a prediction was made and 2010 a measurement verified. I don't want to see that the QM saw this discrepancy and started to re
evaluate the formula to match the measurements. It can of cause be done correctly but it is also a risk of over fitting and this is the basic critique. If you can guide me to such evidences I will propose them to Mills in his discussion mail list and see what we get.